Which Veil Was Torn?
Q. I have another question concerning the court of the Gentiles. Apparently, in the Jerusalem temple there was a curtain that separated the court of the Gentiles from the rest of the temple. According to some Messianic believers the Gospel account of the rending of the veil at the moment of Jesus death was not the veil in the Holy of Holies at all, but the curtain that separated the court of the Gentiles from the rest of the temple. Since the scriptures don’t specify which curtain, how can we know for sure?
A. This sounds like something somebody made up. Think about it. Even if there was a veil (most scholars believe it was a bronze gate) what would be the significance of such a thing? The court next to the court of the Gentiles was the court of the Women, then came the court of the Israelites (for men only) and finally the court of the priests, who were the only ones allowed into the Temple. If there was a veil between the courts of the gentiles and the women, all tearing it would have enabled is for the gentiles to mix with the Jewish women. This is something Jewish law wouldn’t have permitted. And besides, what would be the point in that?
Matt. 27:51 only makes sense if the veil being spoken of was the veil in the Temple separating the outer room (Holy Place) from the inner room (Holy of Holies). Only the High Priest could pass through that veil and then only once a year, because that’s where God dwelt. If the tearing of the veil in the Temple symbolized the death of Jesus giving men unlimited access to God that would have enormous significance. And that’s exactly what happened (Ephes 3:12).
Is This A Proper Use Of My Tithe?
Q. I have been helping to financially support several family members for the past few years with cash gifts towards their food, clothing, medicine, auto repairs, household goods, vacation money and other expenses. During this time I have not tithed my 10% but have made small donations when attending church. I have been considering my financial support to family members as my tithe, keeping in mind that instead of my tithe going to a church organization for their distribution, I am giving it directly to those in need. Is this Biblically correct or is this not considered proper tithing?
A. It’s important to remember that the tithe is not an obligation, like the power bill or mortgage payment. It’s an expression of our gratitude for all the Lord has given us. Helping those who can’t help themselves in the Lord’s name is an acceptable expression of our gratitude.
Also, In 1 Tim. 5:8 Paul said, “If anyone does not provide for his relatives, and especially for his immediate family, he has denied the faith and is worse than an unbeliever.”
The assumption here is that the family members are unable to take care of them selves. If that’s the case then I think using part of your tithe money to help them is justified. However, if they could takes of themselves but would rather depend on you, then it’s a different story. The fact that you’ve been doing this for several years and are going well beyond helping with basic necessities makes me wonder if someone is taking advantage of your generosity.
Bema Seat And Judgment Seat
Q. I know that there is a judgment seat of Christ and a Great White Throne Judgment in the Bible. Years ago I recall my Grandfather talking about a Bema Seat Judgment, but I can find nothing in my King James Version about it. He spoke of its meaning as the same as the Judgment Seat of Christ. Do you know anything about this?
A. The Bema Seat judgment and the judgment Seat of Christ are one and the same. The Greek word “bema” means judgment seat and can be found in the Greek text of Romans 14:10 and 2 Cor. 5:10 where it refers to the judgment seat of Christ. This judgment occurs just after the rapture and is explained in 1 Cor. 3:10-15.
